[!@#$%!]

Originally Posted by truncated

How do those who 'speak' Ebonics (I'm not really sure how to phrase that) not have an existing mastery of a language? If they are able to communicate universally amongst a particular group of people, that constitutes a mastery. They are in no way at a linguistic disadvantage in comparison to anyone else.

there's an oral profficiency but no reading or writing or content learning in AAVE (AAVE= "ebonics"). that's what bilingual programs do. so if you're a ghetto kid you speak one language but have to write a different one. and you are never taught to write what you speak, and don't get a lot of practice at home with your written language. am i making sense?